December 17th, 2008
Our free trial has now been taken by international students. Our questions are deliberately tough. Why not try a sample of the questions from the site and see how you compare to the rest of the students sitting the questions.
Our current average on the trial questions (20 marks) is
46%
That’s because our questions are tough. They’re not about knowledge, but the application of knowledge, exactly what your medical school will be interested in when they set their own benchmark…
Try out questions like the one below on our free trial.
November 15th, 2008
A 38 year old female is diagnosed with breast cancer and having had a lumpectomy proceeds to have 6 cycles of chemotherapy.
PMHx: Asthma, Previous Intravenous drug user
SHx: Current smoker
She does not attend for her pre op chemotherapy clinic appointment, but nevertheless goes on to have the chemotherapy.
6 weeks into her chemotherapy treatment she becomes jaundiced and has the blood tests taken
The problem has not arisen as a result of an adverse drug reaction.
What is the most likely underlying problem that has caused her to be jaundiced?
October 24th, 2008
A 32 year old female presents with an expressive dysphasia to her GP. Her GP initially thinks it could be migraine as she recalls a mild headache. However, he explains to the patient that she needs to be seen in the hospital for a check up.
She has no visual symptoms, motor symptoms or other neurological symptoms or signs.
By the time she arrives in the Emergency department, her symptoms have entirely resolved.
O/E
Temp 36 o Celsius
BP 112/78
Sats 99% Air
GCS 15/15
Fingerprick Blood glucose 3.9mmol/l
On examination she has an entirely normal neurological examination. The rest of the general examination is unremarkable other than a soft systolic murmur.
Is there anything else to be done, or should she simply see her GP for a follow up and consideration of a referral to a headache clinic? If there is something to be done, what is it and why?
September 21st, 2008
The One Minute Case History
46 year old male presenting with a bit of joint pain
Also tells you he has premature “wear and tear” of his hands with no history of trauma.
There’s nothing much else to go on in the history other than the fact that he’s impotent.
His blood tests show a low FSH and a low LH.
His GP thought it all might be rheumatoid arthritis…
What’s the diagnosis people?